My two questions regard how Implan V3 treats employee compensation versus sales in the two federal government sectors 439 and 440. I had thought that since these sectors are listed as being payroll only, employee compensation would equal industry sales. With some experimentation, I find that industry sales is less than employee compensation. First, is this due to export of some government services? And does it affect the results in this sector whether an event is entered as a change in compensation versus a change in industry sales? Second, when I change the model year further into the future, the compensation and sales diverge wildly. As an example, in one model I am using, with 2008 Implan data, industry sales for sector 440 is about 99% of employee compensation for events in 2011 but drops to only about 65% of the employee compensation figure for events in 2015. Is this caused only by unreliable future deflators or is something else occurring? Thanks!
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