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Comparing old RIMS II multipliers

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Forum User
I wanted to follow up to see if you had any insights as to why the multipliers for I-RIMS are systematically lower than RIMS II. Have you encountered this before? We're comparing old RIMS II multipliers we had for similar geographies from 2010 and they are all larger across regions. Any insights are greatly appreciated. Best, Jordan
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    IMPLAN Support
    Hello Jordan, Sorry for the delay in the response. Actually it's expected that RIMS II Multipliers are larger than IMPLAN's and thus I-RIMS since I-RIMS is derived from the aggregation of the IMPLAN Multipliers. Here are a couple of considerations for why our Multipliers are more conservative/different from RIMS: [ul] [li]Typically we have found that RIMS Multipliers are larger than IMPLANs as a result of their using a location quotient to estimate the regional purchase coefficient (RPC) as opposed to our trade model RPC[/li] [li] As far as we know, RIMS does not include Proprietor Income as part of Labor Income. - again, you may want to confirm this with them. [/li] [li]As far as we know, RIMS did not take out savings or commuters when "spending" the Labor Income which would cause their Induced Multipliers to be larger than ours.[/li] [/ul] Please let me know if this addresses your concern or if you have any additional questions.
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    beaconecon
    This is helpful, thanks for the feedback.
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