I'm looking for guidance on some unexpected output from two impacts I'm running using the model for Canada. The study area includes the entire country; the first impact is for the event year 2012 and the second for 2013. The industries used in the two analyses are identical. The growth in total industry sales is around 2% in 2013. Strangely, IMPLAN is modeling a decline in direct jobs of -4.6% while total jobs increase 4.5% in 2013. The growth in wages, VA and output all look normal. Output per worker is significantly higher in 2013, which I assume is driving the decline in the employment impact but this does seem right to me. If productivity is rising this much why aren't indirect and induced jobs impacted in the same way?
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