Could you comment on the sources of differences between the BEA's Personal Consumption Expenditures data and the Household purchases in the national IMPLAN model? For example, I see that PCE for 2014 were $11.9 trillion, whereas total household consumption in IMPLAN was $11.2 trillion. I don't doubt there are good reasons for the differences, I just want to understand what they are. If there's already a page that explains this somewhere, feel free to just link me to it. Thanks!
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